I believe looking at the historical context of 1 John 1, we can see he is addressing the gnostics who believed they had never sinned since birth. He clarifies to them that if they say they have not sinned they are lying and the truth is not in them. BUT if they confess their sins (true confession includes forsaking of sin Proverbs 28:13) they can be forgiven and cleansed from all sin. Then the writer of John says 5 verses later:
1 John 2:3-4 King James Version (KJV)
3 And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.
4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.
And then also says:
1 John 3:8-9 King James Version (KJV)
8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
If 1 John 1:8 is taken to mean Christians must have sin in their life at all times otherwise they don't have the truth in them it makes sin a requirement to enter heaven! It also adds confusion to 1 John 1:9 because if someone were to confess their sins, God would cleanse them 100% from their sin, making them without sin and thus violating 1 John 1:8.
We can also see from 1 John 3:24 that John "keeps God's commandments and does what is pleasing in his sight.
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